Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 13:45
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Person arrested after security threat at Sea-Tac, flights halted - MyNorthwest.com
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
‘Once in a Lifetime’ Photo of ISS Crossing the Sun as Solar Flare Erupts - PetaPixel
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Common Childhood Virus Linked to Alzheimer’s Development in Old Age - Yahoo
What's (not “whats”) the rule?